Isandlwana
Sergeant
- Joined
- Dec 2, 2007
- Messages
- 645
Because I am somewhat of a Philistine when it comes to the Second World War, I have sometimes wondered why it was that our dead in The Great War outnumbered those inflicted upon our nation during WW2. Because much of WW1was static, was it merely the mobility of the later war that ensured a lesser, yet still appalling, death toll? The advancement in medicine between conflicts I'm sure played some part but to me this still doesn't fully explain the disparity.
Obviously I'm aware that it was not only the UK that saw greater numbers perish in The Great War, the men & women of France, Italy, Canada & Australia (to name a few) suffered similar fates, so I'm asking the WW2 buffs to educate me on this one.
Obviously I'm aware that it was not only the UK that saw greater numbers perish in The Great War, the men & women of France, Italy, Canada & Australia (to name a few) suffered similar fates, so I'm asking the WW2 buffs to educate me on this one.